Free GARP FRM Part II Liquidity and Treasury Risk Practice Questions
Practice 66 free Liquidity and Treasury Risk questions for GARP FRM Part II.
66 Questions
27 Easy
26 Medium
13 Hard
2026 Syllabus
Sample Questions
Question 1
Easy
The Basel III Net Stable Funding Ratio (NSFR) is designed primarily to:
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Correct Answer: C
Solution
C is correct. The NSFR equals Available Stable Funding (ASF) divided by Required Stable Funding (RSF) and must be at least 100%. ASF weights liability and equity sources by their stability over a one-year horizon, while RSF weights assets and off-balance-sheet items by their liquidity characteristics. The ratio's purpose is to ensure that long-dated, illiquid assets are funded with reasonably stable liabilities over a one-year period, addressing structural maturity mismatches that the LCR's 30-day horizon does not capture.
Question 2
Medium
A treasury team is designing an idiosyncratic liquidity stress scenario for the bank's internal liquidity adequacy assessment. Which set of assumptions is MOST consistent with a properly designed idiosyncratic stress?
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Correct Answer: C
Solution
C is correct. An idiosyncratic stress is firm-specific: counterparties react to news about the bank itself. The hallmarks are elevated run-off on retail deposits (especially uninsured balances), loss of access to unsecured wholesale markets, and widening haircuts in secured funding. Market-wide liquidity may remain functional for peers — what fails is the firm's own access. Combined firm-plus-market scenarios layer in broader market dislocation, but a pure idiosyncratic case isolates firm-specific funding loss.
Question 3
Hard
A bank reports the following 30-day stressed cash flow projections under Basel III: gross stressed outflows of 400 million USD and gross contractual stressed inflows of 350 million USD. The bank holds 80 million USD of Level 1 HQLA and no Level 2 assets. Under the LCR, contractual inflows used to offset outflows are capped at 75% of gross outflows. What is the bank's LCR?
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Correct Answer: D
Solution
D is correct. The inflow cap limits recognized inflows to 0.75×400=300 million. Pre-cap inflows of 350 million exceed this ceiling, so recognized inflows are 300 million. Net cash outflows = 400−300=100 million. With HQLA of 80 million, LCR=10080​=80%, which falls below the 100% Basel minimum and would require remediation through additional HQLA, longer-dated funding, or a reduction in stressed outflow drivers.
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