Free SOA Exam FM (Financial Mathematics) General Cash Flows, Portfolios, and Asset-Liability Management Practice Questions

Tackle general cash flow analysis, portfolio immunization, and asset-liability management for Exam FM. These questions integrate multiple FM concepts into real-world financial scenarios.

243 Questions
114 Easy
82 Medium
47 Hard
2026 Syllabus
100% Free

Sample Questions

Question 1 Easy
Which of the following best describes a spot rate?
Solution
A spot rate sts_t is the annual effective yield on a zero-coupon investment from time 0 to time tt. It represents the rate at which a single cash flow at time tt is discounted to the present.

Choice (B) describes a holding-period return, not a spot rate. Choice (C) is partially correct in that f0,1=s1f_{0,1} = s_1, but this is not the general definition of a spot rate. Choice (D) is not the definition of a spot rate (though there is a relationship between spot and forward rates). Choice (E) describes the par yield, not the spot rate.
Question 2 Medium
Which of the following statements about convexity is NOT correct?
Solution
Statement (D) is NOT correct. For standard fixed-coupon bonds with fixed cash flows, convexity is always **positive**. This is because the second derivative of the price with respect to yield is positive:
C=1Pd2Pdy2>0C = \frac{1}{P} \frac{d^2P}{dy^2} > 0

Positive convexity means the price-yield curve is convex (bows upward), which benefits the bondholder: prices rise more than duration predicts when yields fall, and fall less when yields rise.

Negative convexity occurs for callable bonds or mortgage-backed securities where cash flows change with interest rates.

(B) Correct -- convexity measures the second-order (curvature) effect.
(C) Correct -- with positive convexity, the duration approximation always understates the true price for parallel yield shifts in either direction.
(A) Correct -- the second-order term 12C⋅P⋅(Δy)2\frac{1}{2}C \cdot P \cdot (\Delta y)^2 improves accuracy.
(E) Correct -- zero-coupon bonds concentrate all cash flow at maturity, producing higher convexity for the same duration.
Question 3 Hard
A 5-year bond pays annual coupons of 8% on a face value of \$1,000 at an annual effective yield of 6%. Calculate the convexity of this bond.
Solution
Cash flows: 80 at times 1 through 4, and 1080 at time 5. Yield i=6%i = 6\%.

Compute present values:
PV1=80/1.06=75.472PV_1 = 80/1.06 = 75.472
PV2=80/1.062=71.200PV_2 = 80/1.06^2 = 71.200
PV3=80/1.063=67.170PV_3 = 80/1.06^3 = 67.170
PV4=80/1.064=63.368PV_4 = 80/1.06^4 = 63.368
PV5=1080/1.065=807.072PV_5 = 1080/1.06^5 = 807.072

Price P=1084.28P = 1084.28.

Convexity formula: C=∑t(t+1)⋅PVt(1+i)2×PC = \frac{\sum t(t+1) \cdot PV_t}{(1+i)^2 \times P}.

Compute ∑t(t+1)⋅PVt\sum t(t+1) \cdot PV_t:
1(2)(75.472)=150.941(2)(75.472) = 150.94
2(3)(71.200)=427.202(3)(71.200) = 427.20
3(4)(67.170)=806.043(4)(67.170) = 806.04
4(5)(63.368)=1267.364(5)(63.368) = 1267.36
5(6)(807.072)=24212.165(6)(807.072) = 24212.16

Sum =26863.70= 26863.70.

C=26863.70(1.06)2×1084.28=26863.701.1236×1084.28=26863.701218.30=22.05C = \frac{26863.70}{(1.06)^2 \times 1084.28} = \frac{26863.70}{1.1236 \times 1084.28} = \frac{26863.70}{1218.30} = 22.05.

Choice D (24.78) results from omitting the (1+i)2(1+i)^2 factor in the denominator.

Choice A (18.19) results from using t2t^2 instead of t(t+1)t(t+1) in the numerator.
Create a Free Account to Access All 243 Questions →

More Exam FM Topics

About FreeFellow

FreeFellow is a free exam prep platform for actuarial (SOA & CAS), CFA, CFP, CPA, CAIA, and securities licensing candidates. Every question includes a detailed solution. Full lessons, flashcards with spaced repetition, timed mock exams, performance analytics, and a personalized study plan are all included — no paywalls, no ads.