Free SOA Exam ALTAM (Advanced Long-Term Actuarial Mathematics) Profit Analysis Practice Questions

Work through profit analysis problems for Exam ALTAM. Questions test profit measures, embedded value, asset share calculations, and the impact of experience deviations on profitability.

126 Questions
48 Easy
64 Medium
14 Hard
2026 Syllabus
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Sample Questions

Question 1 Easy
In profit testing, the term px+t1tVp_{x+t-1} \cdot {_t}V appears in the profit recursion. What does this term represent?
Solution
A is correct. The profit recursion tallies all cash outflows at year-end. For each policy that survives to year-end — a fraction px+t1p_{x+t-1} of those in force at year-start — the insurer must hold the reserve tV{_t}V. The expected total reserve held for survivors is px+t1tVp_{x+t-1} \cdot {_t}V, which is a cash outflow (from the profit perspective) representing the liability being carried forward. A describes discounting the reserve, which is not what this term does. C describes the reserve released by deaths, which is captured by the qx+t1q_{x+t-1} term on the death benefit. D confuses this term with a prospective premium EPV. E invents a risk-charge credit that does not appear in standard profit testing.
Question 2 Medium
A whole life policy on (50)(50): 0V=0{_0}V=0, P=3,500P=3{,}500, e1=0.40P+200=1,600e_1=0.40P+200=1{,}600, b=150,000b=150{,}000, q50=0.006q_{50}=0.006, i=5.5%i=5.5\%. Set Π1=0\Pi_1=0. Solve for 1V{_1}V.
Solution
A is correct. With 0V=0{_0}V=0, the profit recursion is:
(Pe1)(1+i)q50(b1V)p501V=0(P-e_1)(1+i)-q_{50}(b-{_1}V)-p_{50}\cdot{_1}V=0
Net premium: Pe1=3,5001,600=1,900P-e_1=3{,}500-1{,}600=1{,}900.
Accumulated: 1,900×1.055=2,004.501{,}900\times1.055=2{,}004.50.
Expanding:
2,004.50=0.006(150,0001V)+0.9941V=9000.0061V+0.9941V=900+0.9881V2{,}004.50=0.006(150{,}000-{_1}V)+0.994{_1}V=900-0.006{_1}V+0.994{_1}V=900+0.988{_1}V
0.9881V=1,104.500.988{_1}V=1{,}104.50
1V=1,117.91{_1}V=1{,}117.91
A rounds without actuarial basis. B treats the fund as the reserve, ignoring death claims. C states 1,111.171{,}111.17 from a subtraction error in the coefficient. E uses the premium as a proxy.
Question 3 Hard
A 3-year profit signature: Π0=1,500\Pi_0^*=-1{,}500, Π1=600\Pi_1^*=600, Π2=580\Pi_2^*=580, Π3=560\Pi_3^*=560. Test both the IRR criterion (target 18%\geq18\%) and DPP criterion (target 2\leq2 years) at r=18%r=18\%.
Solution
D is correct. Compute NPV at r=18%r=18\%:
NPV=1,500+600/1.18+580/1.3924+560/1.6430=1,500+508.47+416.63+340.84=234.06<0NPV=-1{,}500+600/1.18+580/1.3924+560/1.6430=-1{,}500+508.47+416.63+340.84=-234.06<0
Since NPV(18%)<0NPV(18\%)<0, IRR <18%<18\% — the IRR criterion fails.

DPP at r=18%r=18\%:
Year 1: 1,500+508.47=991.53<0-1{,}500+508.47=-991.53<0
Year 2: 991.53+416.63=574.90<0-991.53+416.63=-574.90<0
Year 3: 574.90+340.84=234.06<0-574.90+340.84=-234.06<0

The cumulative NPV never reaches zero within 3 years — DPP exceeds 3 years, also failing the target. A uses undiscounted sums, an incorrect basis for DPP. B asserts the IRR criterion passes despite NPV<0NPV<0. D asserts the DPP criterion passes but the cumulative NPV is negative at year 2. E overstates the difficulty.
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