Free CFA Level II Equity Valuation Practice Questions

Practice equity valuation for CFA Level II. Questions cover discounted cash flow models, relative valuation, residual income models, and private company valuation techniques.

155 Questions
85 Easy
53 Medium
17 Hard
2026 Syllabus
100% Free

Sample Questions

Question 1 Easy
A trailing P/E ratio is calculated using:
Solution
The trailing (or current) P/E ratio uses the most recent 12 months of actual earnings in the denominator, paired with the current market price.

C is correct. Trailing P/E = Current Price / EPS over the last 12 months.

B is incorrect. This describes the leading (or forward) P/E ratio, which uses forecasted earnings for the next 12 months rather than historical earnings.

A is incorrect. P/E ratios use the current market price, not an average historical price. Using an average price would distort the ratio and is not standard practice.
Question 2 Medium
Based on the vignette, what is Pinnacle Retail's justified P/S ratio?
Solution
A is correct. The justified trailing price-to-sales ratio derived from the Gordon Growth Model is:
P0S0=Net Profit Margin×Payout Ratio×(1+g)rg\frac{P_0}{S_0} = \frac{\text{Net Profit Margin} \times \text{Payout Ratio} \times (1 + g)}{r - g}

Using the vignette data with net profit margin = 8%, payout ratio = 50%, sustainable growth rate = 6%, and required return = 10%:
P0S0=0.08×0.50×1.060.100.06=0.04240.041.08\frac{P_0}{S_0} = \frac{0.08 \times 0.50 \times 1.06}{0.10 - 0.06} = \frac{0.0424}{0.04} \approx 1.08

The justified P/S ratio links profitability (margin), capital allocation (payout), growth, and risk (required return) into a single metric.

B is incorrect because 0.90 results from omitting the (1+g)(1+g) factor or using a lower profit margin in the formula, understating the justified multiple.

C is incorrect because 1.50 results from using a higher profit margin or lower required return, overstating the justified multiple. For example, using a 12% margin would produce a significantly higher P/S ratio.
Question 3 Hard
Based on the vignette, what is SteelForge's intrinsic value per share using the two-stage FCFF model?
Solution
B is correct. The two-stage FCFF model values the explicit high-growth period and the terminal value, then converts enterprise value to equity value per share.

High-growth phase (Years 1--3, g=10%g = 10\%):
FCFF1=500×1.10=550\text{FCFF}_1 = 500 \times 1.10 = 550
FCFF2=605\text{FCFF}_2 = 605
FCFF3=665.5\text{FCFF}_3 = 665.5

Terminal value at end of Year 3 (gL=3%g_L = 3\%):
FCFF4=665.5×1.03=685.47\text{FCFF}_4 = 665.5 \times 1.03 = 685.47
TV3=685.470.090.03=685.470.06=11,424TV_3 = \frac{685.47}{0.09 - 0.03} = \frac{685.47}{0.06} = 11{,}424

Present value at WACC = 9%:
EV=5501.09+6051.092+665.5+11,4241.093\text{EV} = \frac{550}{1.09} + \frac{605}{1.09^2} + \frac{665.5 + 11{,}424}{1.09^3}
=504.6+509.2+12,0901.2950=504.6+509.2+9,33610,350= 504.6 + 509.2 + \frac{12{,}090}{1.2950} = 504.6 + 509.2 + 9{,}336 \approx 10{,}350

Equity value per share:
Equity=EVDebt+Cash=10,3503,000+200=7,550\text{Equity} = \text{EV} - \text{Debt} + \text{Cash} = 10{,}350 - 3{,}000 + 200 = 7{,}550
Per share=7,55030024.70\text{Per share} = \frac{7{,}550}{300} \approx 24.70

FCFF is discounted at WACC (not the cost of equity), and net debt must be subtracted to arrive at equity value.

A is incorrect because 31.85 results from dividing enterprise value by shares without subtracting net debt, or from using a lower WACC.

C is incorrect because 20.50 results from using the cost of equity (12%) instead of WACC to discount FCFF, producing an understated enterprise value.
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